Bible Commentaries
Romans 4

'Justified by works' -we must point out that Paul in these verses holds "works" and "obedience" as two distinct concepts. It must be perfectly clear that Abraham did "obey" God. But it is also perfectly clear that Abraham didn't have anything to boast of. In 6:16 Paul talks about "obedience resulting in righteousness". I think McGuiggan is right when he says,

"In this argumentative section, 'works' stands for the full quota of works demanded by LAW and flawlessly carried out."

'Glory' -'then he would have something to boast about' (Tay)

'But not toward God' -'Abraham wouldn't have reason to boast in God if he had justified himself by his own effort. So "toward God" would mean "to God's honor". If the man had boasted about his own merit it wouldn't be to God's glory.'

'For what saith the scripture?' -in the scriptures we don't find Abraham 'boasting' before God, but rather we find the very doctrine that Paul is teaching!

'Abraham believed God' - Gen_15:6

'reckoned' -3049. logizomai log-id'-zom-ahee; middle voice from 3056; to take an inventory, i.e. estimate (literally or figuratively): -conclude, (ac-)count (of), + despise, esteem, impute, lay, number, reason, reckon, suppose, think (on).

-to set down accounts, it was set down on the credit side of the ledger. (Robertson p. 350)

POINT TO NOTE:

It is a mistake to assume that Gen_15:6 is the point at which Abraham entered into a relationship with God. Paul cites this occasion in the life of Abraham because it contained the wording he needed to make his point. But Abraham had manifested "faith" prior to this ( Gen_12:1-20 / Heb_11:8 ). Which should tell us that justification is an 'on-going thing'. James will refer to Gen_22:1-24 and the offering of Abraham's son and claim that he was justified then. James even says that Gen_15:6 finds fulfillment in Gen_22:1-24 . ( Jam_2:23 )

'Worketh' -in these verses (4-8), the "worker" is put in contrast to the "one who..believes" (5), "the forgiven man" (7-8). ***NOTE: The worker is not JUST an obedient man but the SINLESSLY obedient man. To what other man does God 'owe' acquittal? In such a case, a man that had flawlessly kept God's law, there is no need of grace, God simply 'owes' this man his reward.

'the reward is not reckoned as of grace' -'his wage is not reckoned as a favor, but as what is due' (NASV)

'Worketh not' -don't make the mistake of thinking that "worketh not" means, "obeyeth not". Remember: Abraham (an obedient man- Gen_18:19 ; Gen_26:5 ), falls into the category of a "non-worker" in these verses. Rather, the "worker" is the man that gains acceptance with God on the basis of flawless obedience. In addition, if the worker is the obedient man, then the non-worker is the completely disobedient man. But God has never justified the unrepentant. ( Heb_5:8-9 ; Eze_18:24 )

'but believeth' -the non-worker is an obedient man. ( Heb_11:6 )

'justifieth the ungodly' -Abraham sinned too ( Gen_12:11 ff; Gen_20:2 ff). In fact, David, a justified man (4:6), had committed some very 'ungodly' deeds.

RIGHTEOUSNESS BY FAITH ESTABLISHED BY THE TESTIMONY OF DAVID

'also pronounced' -Moses had pronounced the blessing on Abraham ( Gen_15:6 ). We heard that "faith" (obedient faith) was the way to righteousness before the Mosaic covenant..and now we hear that faith is the way to righteousness after the Mosaic covenant, or while under it.

'reckoneth righteousness apart from works' -Paul will now define for us what 'reckoning righteousness' means, or how 'God justifies ungodly men'.

Paul says that verses 7-8, a quotation from Psa_32:1-2 , is how God makes the sinner to be "right", or how God can justify the man who fails to flawlessly keep the Law. 'In short, imputing righteousness is equivalent to not imputing sin, covering sin and forgiving iniquities'.

POINTS TO NOTE:

1. It is assumed that the 'sinful' man in verses 7-8 (and called 'ungodly' in verse 5), is a repentant man. There is not a single illustration in the Bible where God reckoned righteousness to a person in his impenitence. ( Rom_2:4-5 ).

2. Man finds himself in only two possible conditions. God either reckons sins to my account or righteousness.

3. Paul says that David is an example of 'justification by faith'. Yet that justification INCLUDES FORGIVENESS OF SIN. Therefore (something we always knew) the faith under consideration in the book of Romans, the faith that results in a right standing with God, is a faith that obeys, a faith that includes repentance, confession and baptism. ( Mar_16:16 ; Act_2:38 ; Act_22:16 )

4. God doesn't justify the ungodly (sinners) by ignoring their sins, but by forgiving them in view of the death of Christ.

SUCH JUSTIFICATION IS INDEPENDENT OF CIRCUMCISION:

'This blessing' -'Is this blessing, then, for the circumcised alone?' (Con)

"Yes, the Jew for argument's sake might concede, but you notice that both Abraham and David were circumcised men. There is still the frantic juggling to retain the position of exclusive blessedness. Their inference would be, since both these men are illustrations of justified circumcised men, all justified men must be circumcised."

'How then was it reckoned?' -'Under what circumstances, then, did this take place' (TCNT)

Here we see how prejudice can blind one. 'They hadn't a real grasp of the facts so he presses the opponent. Was Abraham reckoned righteous only after he was circumcised? The facts of the case were well-known but the sectarian heart didn't grasp their significance.'

In their eagerness to hold on to circumcision at all cost, they completely ignored the obvious fact that the justification recorded in Gen_15:6 was BEFORE Abraham was circumcised (chapter 17). Therefore, circumcision wasn't essential to one's right standing with God.

'Sign of circumcision' -the sign which consisted of circumcision, circumcision being the sign. ( Gen_17:11 ), a sign or token that one was a member of the covenant.

'A seal of the righteousness' -'as the stamp of God's acknowledgement of the uprightness based on faith' (Gspd) Circumcision wasn't a substitute for his faith; it was a token of the faith he already had.

'Seal' -an old word for the seal placed on books, for a signet-ring, that by which anything is confirmed. (Robertson p. 351)

'which he had while he was in uncircumcision' -someone might ask, 'Well, then why was Abraham circumcised?' Paul responds, 'It was God's stamp of approval on his previous faith'. NOTE: THIS WAS ONLY TRUE OF ABRAHAM. Abraham was declared righteous by faith before he was circumcised but none of his descendants were. ( Gen_17:12-14 ) To him alone it was a seal of previous righteousness.

'that he might be the father of all them that believe' -The Jews wish to deny blessing to those uncircumcised but this would EXCLUDE their famous father.

NOTE: Some try to parallel circumcision and baptism, and argue that baptism is simply a 'sign' of already established righteousness. The parallel breaks down when we realize that one is justified through forgiveness (4:7-8), but in order to obtain forgiveness/justification, baptism stands in the way. ( Mar_16:16 ; 1Pe_3:21 )

'to them who not only are of the circumcision, but..' -'Every Jew knew that Abraham was the father of the circumcised, but not all Jews knew that Abraham was REALLY the father of those circumcised WHO HAD FAITH.' ( Joh_8:32-44 ; Mat_3:9 ; Rev_2:9 ; Rev_3:9 )

'The real descendants of Abraham, therefore..are not those who merely imitate his acceptance of ceremonial rites (like circumcision), but those who emulate and share his faith.'

RIGHTEOUSNESS ESTABLISHED AS BEING INDEPENDENT OF PERFECT LAW- KEEPING

'Through the law' -the promises given to Abraham were not given to him based on his flawless law-keeping, but on the basis of his faith.

'Heir of the world' -this is not a formal quotation of any recorded promise to Abraham, but an interpretation of those promises which make reference to 'all families of the earth' ( Gen_12:3 ); and 'all nations' (18:18; 22:18). Since Christ is the 'seed' of Abraham ( Gal_3:16 ); and Christ has inherited all ( Heb_1:2 ); in Christ Abraham and all believers inherit all things. ( Gal_3:26-29 )

'they that are of the law' -'for if it is those who rely on Law who are the heirs' (Wey)

The Jews ought to be glad that what Paul says it true. There is no definite article before "law". They that are "of law" is anyone laboring under the necessity of personally fulfilling law's demands (flawlessly). If gaining the promise is dependent on that, no ONE WILL GET THE PROMISE ( Rom_3:23 ).

'faith is made void' -a system of perfect law-keeping doesn't demand faith, it demands flawlessness. And Abraham would be a nobody under such a system!

'the promise is made of none effect' -something gained by perfect law-keeping, really couldn't be called a promise, it would be a debt. In addition, none could inherit such a 'promise', for none can perfectly keep law (any law).

'law worketh wrath' -when Paul mentions "law" it appears that he is speaking of a "legal arrangement", a perfect law-keeping system of rightness with God. He is arguing that God's promises weren't designed to be dispensed under such a system, because such a system only brings wrath (because people sin-3:23). The only promise that such a system realistically offers to mankind is wrath!

'no law, neither is there transgression' -in the context this phrase seems to be arguing, forgiveness (4:7-8) is only possible (including God's promises) under a system of justification different from perfect law keeping.

'For this cause' -'For this reason' (NASV); 'That it why it depends on faith' (RSV); 'The promise was made on the ground of faith' (NEB).

A system of perfect law-keeping couldn't dispense forgiveness or God's promises (4:13-15); that is the reason that such forgiveness and promises were to be made available on the basis of faith (again, faith in the whole book is a faith that obeys).

'to the end' -'in order that' (NASV). And why did God make it a matter of grace through faith?

'that the promise may be sure to all the seed'

'Sure' -'certain' (NASV). God didn't set it up this way to spite the Jews, but rather so that it would be within reach of every Jew and Gentile. Rightness with God based on a system of obedient faith and grace ENSURES that all who want it, CAN OBTAIN IT. Rightness with God based on perfect law-keeping ensures that absolutely nobody will obtain it ( Rom_3:23 ).

'as it is written' - Gen_17:5 , this quotation proves the last line in verse 16, i.e. that Abraham is the father of believing Gentiles also.

'calleth the things that are not, as though they were' -specifically in this verse, calling Abraham a father of many nations, before Isaac and any other descendants were even born. 'Have I made thee'-long before the promise was fulfilled God had spoken it in the past tense.

IN PRAISE OF ABRAHAM:

The whole point of this section seems to be, that Abraham is praised for his faith and not his flawless law-keeping. The same case could be made for all those great heros of faith cited in Hebrews chapter 11.

'Who' -i.e. Abraham.

'in hope believed against hope' -'past hope in (upon) hope he trusted.' (Robertson p. 353). Humanly speaking, what did he have going for him? A body now good as dead and a wife who couldn't bear children. There were no grounds for hope here. The only grounds for hope were in God and His word.

'he considered' -'his faith never quailed, even when he noted the utter impotence of his own body.' (Mof)

"There are those who don't wish to hear about the difficulties. They tell us to always speak positively, 'don't bring up the obstacles'. The person who is always gushing about how wonderful everything is, is something of a simpleton. The word 'considered' speaks of reflection...Abraham knew exactly what he was up against. He looked at the obstacles right in the face, weighed them all up and didn't bat an eye! What did he care? These were only huge problems and his God was greater."