Bible Commentaries
Romans 3

Introduction

Verse 1

'Advantage' -lit., surplus (Vincent p. 31); lit., what then is the overplus of the Jew? What does the Jew have over and above the Gentile?

'Profit' -5622. opheleia o-fel'-i-ah; from a derivative of the base of 5624; usefulness, i.e. benefit: -advantage, profit.

'What value was there in circumcision' (Knox)

'Here Paul imagines someone breaking into his argument and saying: "Well then, if it is being a Jew inwardly that counts, if it is the 'circumcision' of the heart that matters, is there any advantage in belonging to the Jewish nation, or in being physically circumcised?" We might have expected Paul to answer this supposed question quite categorically: "None at all!" But, rather to our surprise, he replies: "Much every way". Of course it is an advantage to belong to the Jewish nation. Think of all the privileges granted by God to that nation--privileges in which other nations had no part.'

Verse 2

'Oracles' -3051. logion log'-ee-on; neuter of 3052; an utterance (of God): -oracle.

A strong case is presented for the 'inspiration' of the O.T. For what 'advantage' would the Jew of had if the O.T. was merely a collection of myths, fables and camp-fire stories?

The Jew always wanted to talk about 'advantages', how God had set them apart, but he forgot that such advantages brought a great responsibility to obey God. The same is true with Christians! ( Heb_2:1-3 ). For every generation of Christians is 'entrusted' with the truth ( 1Ti_1:11 ; 1Ti_6:20 'O Timothy, guard what has been entrusted to you ...').

Verse 3

'Some' -i.e. some of the Jewish people. The fact was that many Jews had not proved faithful, many rejected the very Messiah foretold in the utterances they possessed.

'make of none effect the faithfulness of God?' -'nullify' (NASV)

The utterances of God which had been entrusted to the Jewish people contained many promises to bless them. But when Paul wrote, many Jews still stood in an unblessed condition. Was this God's fault? Certainly not! The very word 'some' infers that other Jews are 'faithful' and are receiving God's promised blessing. God has kept 'faith', it is man who hasn't.

Verse 4

'God forbid' -'Of course not!' (Phi); 'O may it never be' (NASV); 'away with the thought of any reflection upon Him!' (Gr. Ex. N.T. p. 603)

'Let God be found true' -'When the case is stated between God and man there can only be one conclusion: let God come out true, and every man a liar .' (Gr. Ex. p. 603)

'Let' implies that 'let this always be our conclusion when any difference is found between human thinking and God's view'. Let the ways of God always be seen as right and just, and let all human critics be viewed as liars. 'Let God turn out to be or be found to be by His creatures' (Vincent p. 33).

Modern Application: Who is seen to be in the "right" on the subjects of adultery, homosexuality, etc.. Can we swallow the fact that anytime we encounter a 'hard saying', and start to balk at it, that we are the 'liar'?

'Every man' -guess who is right in every debate and disagreement that people have with God?

'As it is written' - Psa_51:4

'Paul quotes Psa_51:4 . David has just confessed the terribleness of his sin. A sin that was pleasant! Sin with a beautiful woman! His attitude was, that God would deal justly with him. Whatever decision God would make would be a righteous one . And when people examine his treatment and VIEW OF DAVID'S ACTIONS they would all see that God had indeed been equitable with David.'

After committing adultery with a beautiful, willing woman, David ADMITS THAT GOD IS RIGHT (in the right to call such wonderful passion-from the human point of view-SIN). Have we learned this lesson.

Verse 5

'Commendeth' -'demonstrates' (NASV); 'serves to magnify' (Nor).

'Someone may say: "If my faithLESSness sets God's faithfulness in bolder relief...why should He find fault with Me? He is really the gainer by my sin, why should He exact retribution for it?'

'It is fair, then, for Him to punish us when our sins are helping Him' (Tay)

'I speak after the manner of men' -the objection seems so foolish to Paul that he apologizes for mentioning it. "When I ask the question, 'Is God unjust who inflicteth wrath?' I am deeply conscious that I am using language which is intrinsically improper when applied to God.'

Verse 6

'How shall God judge the world' -The Jew has in essence just claimed that his sin became an occasion for God's praise. But Paul points out, that is true of every man's sin. God has turned man's evil to his glory. The Jewish objector would use God's ability to turn sin to his glory as a shield from wrath. But if the Jewish objector could do it so could EVERY OTHER PERSON! When judgement arrived every man in creation could approach the judgement seat claiming exemption from wrath on the grounds that "my sin helped God". That kind of reasoning would do away with the judgement of the world by God!

Verse 7

'The supposed objector is persistent..'If my falsehood makes God's truth shine more brightly by contrast (like a diamond on a background of black velvet)..why then does He insist on condemning me as a sinner? The end--God's glory is good; why then is the means--my sin--counted wrong?'

Verse 8

'and why not' -Paul says, 'In fact, some say the Gospel that I preach simply amounts to such, i.e. the more we sin, the more God is glorified and is seen as just.'

'do evil, that good may come' -a clear condemnation of the 'end justifies the means' type of argumentation.

'Whose condemnation is just' -'to condemn such men as these is surely no injustice' (NEB); 'such arguments are rightly condemned' (Mon). Paul will more fully show in 6:1-8:17 that such is not the logical end of the gospel that he preaches.

Verse 9

'What then' -Paul returns to the thought presented in 3:1-2. Do such advantages make us any better than the Gentiles?

'Better' -privileges or no privileges, the Jew stood before God just as the Gentile, a sinner! A point that Paul has already established in the first two chapters.

Verse 10

'As it is written' -'The scriptures endorse this fact plainly enough' (Phi). Here Paul cites six O.T. passages which prove his point. These were from the utterances entrusted to the Jewish nation. Someone might argue that such passages were referring to wicked Gentiles, in verse 19 Paul will answer that argument, by pointing out that the 'Law', spoke to those under it, i.e. these passages were talking about Jews!

'There is none righteous' - Psa_14:1 .

'Not one' -but someone might say, but didn't the O.T. contain 'righteous' people? Like Noah, Abraham, Moses, the prophets? I think we realize that such men were not perfect keepers of the law, that ultimately their 'righteous' condition was tied to the future sacrifice of Christ. ( Heb_9:15 ; Heb_11:40 ; Heb_12:23 ) Note: The atheists in Psa_14:1 are not philosophic atheists. They are pragmatic atheists (14:2). They are "acting" as if God doesn't exist, and hence no punishment will come upon their evil deeds. A lot more of these kind of atheists exist, even in the church.

Verse 12

'Unprofitable' -'useless' (NASV). The Hebrew word means to go bad, become sour like milk A life lived apart from God is a 'useless' life, a life that is 'wasted'.

Notice the accusations against the proud Jewish race. Despite their access to the word of God and their devotion to study, God says they 'lack understanding' (3:11). Despite having in their possession the word of God, they didn't use it to 'seek' Him (3:11)

Verse 13

Quotation from Psa_5:9 , 'poison of asps is under their lips'- Psa_140:3 .

Verse 14

Rom_3:14 Whose mouth is full of cursing and bitterness: - Psa_10:7

Verse 15

Rom_3:15 - Isa_59:7 ff

Verse 18

Rom_3:18 - Psa_36:1

'All their functions are contaminated with sin. Their throats, tongues, eyes, feet, lips and hands are declared as the instruments of sin. ..the whole Jewish nation is guilty and they are thoroughly guilty!'

Verse 19

Verse 20

Verse 21

Verse 22

Verse 23

Verse 24

'in Christ Jesus' -( 2Ti_1:9 ; Eph_1:3-4 ; Eph_1:7 ). And how does one get 'in Christ Jesus'? ( Gal_3:26-27 )

Verse 25

'Set forth' -publicly, openly.

'Propitiation' -satisfaction, appeasement, having a placating or expiating force. To propitiate is to appease, to render favorable.

In the Greek translation of the Hebrew Scriptures (LXX), this is the word used to describe the 'mercy seat', where atonement was made in the O.T. In contrast, the true "means" of appeasing the penalty that sin demands, wasn't veiled or hidden, but publicly shown to all, i.e. Christ died in full public view.

'through faith' -such appeasement for sin does have conditions.

'in his blood' -again, not just faith 'in' anything.

'to show his righteousness because of the passing over of the sins done aforetime'

'to show' -to demonstrate. God cannot just let sin slip by. If sin in the past was left unpunished was it because God was ignoring it? Did he think it wasn't very important? This phrase teaches the truth, that if patience was shown to sinful men and sins in the past, it was IN VIEW OF THE COMING SACRIFICE OF CHRIST. God's justifying us, MUST OF ITSELF BE JUST. God cannot deliver us by an unrighteous method. ( Act_17:30 ) Here we encounter another passage that teaches that the benefits of the blood of Christ flow both ways ( Heb_9:15 )

'That is, to demonstrate that God was not unrighteous when He passed over (left unpunished) sins committed in earlier days, in the period of His forbearance.'

Verse 26

Verse 27

'Glorying' -'boasting' (NASV); 'then what becomes of our boasting' (Mof).

Why were sins left unpunished? The Jew would say, that was because I was good! The Gentile would say, that was because I wasn't like the rank and file decadent. GOD SAYS NO! That's not why the sins where left unpunished. The acquittal of sin revealed in the gospel contains nothing that man can 'boast about'.

'It is excluded' -'It has been shut out' (Con); 'It is ruled out absolutely' (Mof)

'By what manner of law' -'On what principle' (Mof). If one could perfectly keep the law, then one could 'boast'. But since salvation is based on the innocent dying for the guilty, and is only obtained by humble submission, all boasting has been ruled out. This obedient faith or humble submission, Paul calls the 'law of faith'. "Depending on the innocent to justify the guilty is what Paul calls the law of faith".

Verse 28

'Reckon' -'conclude'; 'for we maintain' (NASV).

'Works of the law' -perfect law-keeping, trying to maintain a right standing with God on the basis of flawlessly keeping the law, has been shown to be a system that cannot justify anyone.

Note: In this verse Paul is not contrasting 'faith and obedience', but rather 'a faith that trusts in Christ' and 'flawless law-keeping'.

Verse 29

'Since no one has the record on which he can boast and since faith is possible in everyone , Jew and Gentile, then Gentile as well as Jew can be justified.'

Here is another verse that teaches the truth, that only One God exists and all men are accountable to Him.

Verse 30

Both need justification! And the conditions for salvation for both are the same! ( Mar_16:16 ; Act_2:38 )

Verse 31

'Do we then make the law of none effect' -'Does that mean that we are using faith to rob the law of its force' (Knox)

-'Does justification by law undermine law'? Paul responds, 'not at all'.

'Establish' -certainly not in the sense of making law binding, or 'in force'. 'We uphold the law' (Mof)

1. If the law of Moses is under primary consideration in this verse, then teaching justification by faith simply upholds what the law and the prophets had predicted. (3:21)

2. If the 'law' under consideration is 'the law all are under today': The person who seeks to be right with God on the basis of obedient trust/humble submission, is the individual that will be always be ready to conform to God's commands, and quickly repent (demonstrating respect for law) when they violate them.

3. By contrast, all that claim they can be right with God on the basis of perfect law-keeping, violate and show disrespect for the law of God, for such people refuse to see where they violate the law. ( 1Jn_1:10 )