Bible Commentaries
Matthew 8

Verse 5

Matthew 8:5

Lk 7.3 Note in parallel in Mat 8:5-13 records the same event, but Matthew did not record the sending of messengers. He presented the account as if the centurion were present himself. Matthew was reflecting what the centurion meant when he noted that his messengers do his bidding as if he were there himself (Luke 7:8).

Verse 20

Matthew 8:20

▣ "the Son of Man" This was Jesus’ self-chosen designation. It was an Hebraic phrase referring to a human being (cf. Psalms 8:4; Ezekiel 2:1). But because of its use in Daniel 7:13, it took on divine qualities. Therefore, this term combines the humanity and Deity of Jesus. - Utley

It uniquely describes the Messiah as fully human and fully God (cf. John 1:1, John 1:14; 1 John 4:1-3).

The people were unfamiliar with the designation since it was not used by the rabbis, (John 12:34) and had no nationalistic or militaristic overtones; and it’s probably for this reason that Jesus chose to use it of Himself as a pure Messianic term. - WG

Here is a quote from Utley on Daniel 7:13.

" a son of man was coming" The Aramaic phrase (" ben enosh," construct BDB 1085 and 1081) "son of man" is different from the similar Hebrew phrase ("ben adam") found in Psalms and Ezekiel. Both phrases are used in parallel in Job 25:6; Psalms 8:4; Psalms 90:3; Psalms 144:3; Isaiah 13:12. This obviously refers to the Messiah and it links his humanity (cf. Daniel 8:17; Job 25:6; Psalms 8:4; Ezekiel 2:1), which is the meaning of the Aramaic and Hebrew phrases, "son of man" with his deity because the clouds are the transportation of Deity (cf. Matthew 24:30; Matthew 26:64; Mark 13:26; Mark 14:62; Revelation 1:7; Revelation 14:14).

Jesus uses the phrase to refer to Himself in the NT. It was not used of the Messiah in rabbinical Judaism. It had no exclusivistic, nationalistic, militaristic connotations. It uniquely describes the Messiah as fully human and fully God (cf. 1 John 4:1-3). Daniel’s usage is the first which focuses on its divine aspect! - Utley

the Son of Man -- Jesus used this phrase for Himself in four senses.

1. His authority, see comments at Luke 5:24, etc. WG.

2. His suffering and death (e.g., Mark 8:31; Mark 10:45; Mark 14:21; Luke 9:22; Luke 9:44)

3. His coming as Judge (e.g., Matthew 16:27; Matthew 25:31; John 5:27)

4. His coming in glory to set up His kingdom (e.g., Matthew 16:28; Matthew 19:28; Mark 13:26-27; Mark 14:62) - (Utley)

Verse 23

Matthew 8:23

Mark 4:35 See Topic Notes "Sermons_Gann" on "Stilling The Tempest"